GodGuides4:175
Member
I'm confused...what is the Quranic view of the Torah and Gospel Scriptures in regards to inspiration and preservation? If no longer preserved when did this happen? What evidence is there to support that?
I assume based on my reading of Quran so far (which I'm very new reading and could be misunderstanding this) time of Muhammad it was preserved enough to be upheld as a valid source to confirm message of Quran?
But from what I know Torah and Gospels manuscripts though having variances (which demonstrates they are not inerrant) but despite that it still has been consistent in ancient manuscripts and secondary Christian and Jewish scholars writings enough that are dated pre and post time of writing Quran that has maintained a level of consistency in messages to a point that it would conflict with Quran's message...so how can that be reconciled with what Quran says about those Scriptures?
And Moses is attributed with authorship of the actual written Torah/Pentateuch texts correct? 53:36-37 and 87:18-19
If so that is problematic as the Pentateuch has clear internal issues in the texts themselves showing at least parts were written hundreds years after Moses's death. For obvious reasons Moses can't be author writing about Israel and kingdoms and the kings. Lol
And another example is references to "house" of the Lord in pentatuch would date that at least after Solomon. Book of Samuel clearly states God declaring the change from "tent" to "house" upon the commemorating the building of temple by Solomon. So that is 450 years after Moses death referring to "house of Lord" instead of tent by writer of pentatuch...even though Christians and Jews commonly attribute Moses authorship to the Pentateuch I think within the texts themselves it can be demonstrated that what we have found for manuscripts and what is established and accepted as Torah was NOT penned by Moses himself but instead hundreds of years later... How does this all reconcile?
I assume based on my reading of Quran so far (which I'm very new reading and could be misunderstanding this) time of Muhammad it was preserved enough to be upheld as a valid source to confirm message of Quran?
But from what I know Torah and Gospels manuscripts though having variances (which demonstrates they are not inerrant) but despite that it still has been consistent in ancient manuscripts and secondary Christian and Jewish scholars writings enough that are dated pre and post time of writing Quran that has maintained a level of consistency in messages to a point that it would conflict with Quran's message...so how can that be reconciled with what Quran says about those Scriptures?
And Moses is attributed with authorship of the actual written Torah/Pentateuch texts correct? 53:36-37 and 87:18-19
If so that is problematic as the Pentateuch has clear internal issues in the texts themselves showing at least parts were written hundreds years after Moses's death. For obvious reasons Moses can't be author writing about Israel and kingdoms and the kings. Lol
And another example is references to "house" of the Lord in pentatuch would date that at least after Solomon. Book of Samuel clearly states God declaring the change from "tent" to "house" upon the commemorating the building of temple by Solomon. So that is 450 years after Moses death referring to "house of Lord" instead of tent by writer of pentatuch...even though Christians and Jews commonly attribute Moses authorship to the Pentateuch I think within the texts themselves it can be demonstrated that what we have found for manuscripts and what is established and accepted as Torah was NOT penned by Moses himself but instead hundreds of years later... How does this all reconcile?