BelieverSG
New member
Peace and blessings my brothers in faith.
I seek only clarity and knowledge from learned men here. All knowledge is from God and He is the source of all there is.
I have a question about Firawn.
If that word means a stature like a king, emperor, etc, then it doesn’t make sense to me that He would just state it as its purportedly to mean as such.
In the Quran, God usually mentions the name of the persons He is referring to.
For example, Solomon is a ruler though he was not mentioned as a king. However, the verse below clearly states that he was on a throne:
وَلَقَدْ فَتَنَّا سُلَيْمَـٰنَ وَأَلْقَيْنَا عَلَىٰ كُرْسِيِّهِۦ جَسَدًا ثُمَّ أَنَابَ
And We subjected Solomon to means of denial, and cast upon his throne a body; then did he repent.
(38:34)
And, who sits on a throne? A ruler, be them a king, an emperor, etc.
So, how can this word Firawn and in its English form, Pharaoh, be of the same status as a ruler ie king, emperor, etc.
Isn’t the conclusion here is that Firawn was the name of the one who oppressed the children of Israel led by Moses?
I might be wrong and I seek forgiveness in our Lord if I am.
Let’s discuss!
I seek only clarity and knowledge from learned men here. All knowledge is from God and He is the source of all there is.
I have a question about Firawn.
If that word means a stature like a king, emperor, etc, then it doesn’t make sense to me that He would just state it as its purportedly to mean as such.
In the Quran, God usually mentions the name of the persons He is referring to.
For example, Solomon is a ruler though he was not mentioned as a king. However, the verse below clearly states that he was on a throne:
وَلَقَدْ فَتَنَّا سُلَيْمَـٰنَ وَأَلْقَيْنَا عَلَىٰ كُرْسِيِّهِۦ جَسَدًا ثُمَّ أَنَابَ
And We subjected Solomon to means of denial, and cast upon his throne a body; then did he repent.
(38:34)
And, who sits on a throne? A ruler, be them a king, an emperor, etc.
So, how can this word Firawn and in its English form, Pharaoh, be of the same status as a ruler ie king, emperor, etc.
Isn’t the conclusion here is that Firawn was the name of the one who oppressed the children of Israel led by Moses?
I might be wrong and I seek forgiveness in our Lord if I am.
Let’s discuss!